You may effect purchases or redemptions or request any shareholder privilege by contacting the Transfer Agent.

Each Fund accepts orders for the purchase or redemption of shares of the Fund on any weekday except days when the New York Stock Exchange (the "NYSE") is closed. Under unusual circumstances, a Fund may accept orders when the NYSE is closed if deemed appropriate by the Trust's officers.

The shares of the Funds may not be available for sale in the state in which you reside. Please check with your investment professional to determine each Fund's availability.

Shares of each class of each Fund are offered on a continuous basis by the Distributor.

Each Fund reserves the right to refuse any purchase request.

Fund shares are issued for cash only.

IRAs. All contributions made through a financial intermediary into an individual retirement account (an "IRA") are treated as IRA contributions made during the year that the contribution is received.

UGMAs/UTMAs. If the custodian's name is not in the account registration of a gift or transfer to minor ("UGMA/UTMA") account, the custodian must provide instructions in a manner indicating custodial capacity.

You may redeem Fund shares at NAV.

Each Fund may redeem shares involuntarily, (1) to reimburse the Fund for any loss sustained by reason of the failure of a shareholder to make full payment for shares purchased by the shareholder; or (2) to collect any charge relating to transactions effected for the benefit of a shareholder that is applicable to the Fund's shares as provided in the Prospectus.

Suspension of Right of Redemption. The right of redemption may not be suspended for more than seven days after the tender of Fund shares, except for any period during which: (1) the NYSE is closed (other than customary weekend and holiday closings) or during which the SEC determines that trading thereon is restricted; (2) an emergency (as determined by the SEC) exists as a result of which disposal by a Fund of its securities is not reasonably practicable or as a result of which it is not reasonably practicable for the Fund fairly to determine the value of its net assets; or (3) the SEC has entered a suspension order for the protection of the shareholders of the Fund.

Redemption in Kind. Redemption proceeds normally are paid in cash. If deemed appropriate and advisable by the Adviser, a Fund may satisfy a redemption request from a shareholder by distributing portfolio securities pursuant to procedures adopted by the Board. The Trust has filed an election with the SEC pursuant to which a Fund may effect a redemption in portfolio securities only if the particular shareholder is redeeming more than $250,000 or 1% of the Fund's total net assets, whichever is less, during any 90-day period.

NAV Determination. The NAV of each Fund is determined by taking the market value of the total assets of the Fund, subtracting the liabilities of the Fund and then dividing the result (net assets) by the number of outstanding shares of the Fund. Each Fund calculates its NAV as of the close of trading on the NYSE (generally 4:00 p.m., Eastern Time) on each weekday that the NYSE is open, except as described below.

The NYSE is open every weekday, Monday through Friday. The NYSE is closed on the following holidays: New Year's Day, Martin Luther King, Jr. Day (the third Monday in January), Presidents' Day (the third Monday in February), Good Friday, Memorial Day (the last Monday in May), Independence Day, Labor Day (the first Monday in September), Thanksgiving Day (the fourth Thursday in November) and Christmas Day. The NYSE may close early on the day before each of these holidays as well as on the day after Thanksgiving Day, and the NYSE holiday schedule is subject to change without notice.

Each Fund values securities for which market quotations are readily available at current market value, except for certain short-term securities that may be valued at amortized cost. Securities for which market quotations are readily available are valued using the last reported sales price provided by independent pricing services as of the close of trading on the NYSE on each Fund business day. In the absence of sales, such securities are valued at the mean of the last bid and asked price. Non-exchange traded securities for which quotations are readily available are generally valued at the mean between the current bid and asked price. Investments in non-exchange traded investment companies are valued at their NAVs.

Government, corporate, asset-backed and municipal bonds and convertible securities, including high yield or junk bonds, normally are valued on the basis of prices provided by independent pricing services. Prices provided by the pricing services may be determined without exclusive reliance on quoted prices, and may be based on broker-supplied or dealer-supplied valuations or on matrix pricing, a method of valuing securities by reference to the value of other securities with similar characteristics, such as rating, interest rate, maturity institution-size trading in similar groups of securities, developments related to special securities, dividend rate, and other market data. If the prices provided by pricing services and independent quoted prices are unreliable, the Valuation Committee described below will fair value the security using the Trust's fair value procedures.

If market quotations are not readily available or the Fund reasonably believes that they are unreliable, each Fund will seek to value such securities at fair value, as determined in good faith using procedures approved by the Board. The Board has delegated day-to-day responsibility for fair valuation determinations in accordance with the procedures to a Valuation Committee composed of management members who are appointed to the Committee by the Board. The Committee makes such determinations under the supervision of the Board. Fair valuation may be based on subjective factors. As a result, the fair value price of a security may differ from that security's market price and may not be the price at which the security may be sold. Fair valuation could result in a different NAV than a NAV determined by using market quotations. To the extent that the Fund invests in open-end investment companies, the prospectuses for those investment companies explain the circumstances under which those companies will use fair value pricing and the effects of using fair value pricing.

Securities of smaller companies and certain derivatives are more likely to require a fair value determination because they may be thinly traded and less liquid than securities of larger companies.

Distributions. Distributions of net investment income will be reinvested at the NAV of the applicable class (unless you elect to receive distributions in cash) as of the last day of the period with respect to which the distribution is paid. Distributions of net realized capital gains will be reinvested at the NAV of the applicable class (unless you elect to receive distributions in cash) on the payment date for the distribution. Cash payments may be made more than seven days following the date on which distributions would otherwise be reinvested.

Each Fund has elected and intends to qualify, or, if newly organized, intends to elect and qualify, for each taxable year as a RIC under the Code. This qualification does not involve governmental supervision of management or investment practices or policies of the Funds.

The taxable year-end of the Funds is September 30, which is the same as the Funds' fiscal year-end.

Qualification as a Regulated Investment Company. As a RIC, a Fund will not be subject to federal income tax on the portion of its investment company taxable income (generally, interest, dividends, the excess of net short-term capital gain over net long-term capital loss, net gains and losses from certain foreign currency transactions and other ordinary income, net of expenses, without regard to the deduction for dividends paid) and net capital gain (that is, the excess of net long-term capital gain over net short-term capital loss) that it distributes to shareholders. To qualify to be taxed as a RIC for a taxable year, a Fund must satisfy the following requirements, among others:

In some circumstances, the character and timing of income realized by a Fund for purposes of the Gross Income Requirement or the identification of the issuer for purposes of the Diversification Requirements is uncertain under current law with respect to a particular investment, and an adverse determination or future guidance by the IRS with respect to such type of investment may adversely affect a Fund's ability to satisfy these requirements. See, "Certain Tax Rules Applicable to Fund Transactions" below with respect to the application of these requirements to certain types of investments. In other circumstances, a Fund may be required to sell portfolio holdings in order to meet the Gross Income Requirement, Distribution Requirement, or Asset Diversification Requirements, which may have a negative impact on a Fund's income and performance.

Failure to Qualify. If for any taxable year a Fund does not qualify for treatment as a RIC, all of its taxable income (including its net capital gain) would be subject to tax at regular corporate rates without any deduction for dividends paid to shareholders, and the dividends would be taxable to the shareholders as ordinary income to the extent of the Fund's current and accumulated earnings and profits (except that, for individual and certain other non-corporate shareholders, the part thereof that is "qualified dividend income" would be subject to federal income tax at the rates for net capital gain - a maximum rate of 15% for a single shareholder with taxable income not exceeding $413,200 ($464,850 for married shareholders filing jointly) and 20% for those shareholders with taxable income exceeding those respective amounts, and those dividends would be eligible for the dividends-received deduction available to corporations under certain circumstances). Furthermore, a Fund could be required to recognize unrealized gains, pay substantial taxes and interest, and make substantial distributions before requalifying for RIC treatment.

Failure to qualify for treatment as a RIC would thus have a negative impact on a Fund's after-tax performance. It is possible that a Fund will not qualify as a RIC in any given taxable year.

If a Fund fails to satisfy the Gross Income Requirement for any taxable year, it nevertheless will be considered to have satisfied that requirement for that year if, among other things, the failure "is due to reasonable cause and not due to willful neglect" and the Fund pays a tax in an amount equal to the excess of its gross income that is not qualifying income for purposes of that requirement over one-ninth of its gross income that is such qualifying income.

If a Fund fails to satisfy either Diversification Requirement at the close of any quarter of its taxable year by reason of a discrepancy existing immediately after its acquisition of any security that is wholly or partly the result of that acquisition during that quarter, it will not lose its status for that quarter as a RIC if the discrepancy is eliminated within 30 days after the quarter's close. If a Fund fails to satisfy either of the Diversification Requirements (other than a "de minimis" failure, as defined in the Code) for a quarter and the preceding sentence does not apply, it nevertheless will be considered to have satisfied those requirements for that quarter if, among other things, the failure "is due to reasonable cause and not due to willful neglect" and the Fund disposes of the assets that caused the failure within six months after the last day of the quarter in which it identifies the failure in the manner to be prescribed by the IRS; in that case, the Fund will also be liable for a tax equal to the greater of $50,000 or the amount determined by multiplying the net income generated by those assets for the period from the date the failure occurs to the date of disposition thereof by the highest rate of tax applicable to corporations (currently 35%).

Portfolio Turnover. For investors that hold their Fund shares in a taxable account, a high portfolio turnover rate may result in higher taxes. This is because a fund with a high turnover rate is likely to accelerate the recognition of capital gains and more of such gains are likely to be taxable as short-term rather than long-term capital gains in contrast to a comparable fund with a low turnover rate. Any such higher taxes would reduce the Fund's after-tax performance.

Deferral of Late Year Losses. The Fund may elect to treat part or all of any "qualified late year loss" as if it had been incurred in the succeeding taxable year in determining the Fund's taxable income, net capital gain, net short-term capital gain, and earnings and profits. The effect of this election is to treat any such "qualified late year loss" as if it had been incurred in the succeeding taxable year in characterizing Fund distributions for any calendar year. A "qualified late year loss" includes:

The terms "specified losses" and "specified gains" mean ordinary losses and gains from the sale, exchange, or other disposition of property (including the termination of a position with respect to such property), foreign currency losses and gains, and losses and gains resulting from holding stock in a passive foreign investment company ("PFIC") for which a mark-to-market election is in effect. The terms "ordinary losses" and "ordinary income" mean other ordinary losses and income that are not described in the preceding sentence.

Undistributed Capital Gains.  Each Fund may retain or distribute to shareholders its net capital gain for each taxable year. Each Fund currently intends to distribute net capital gains. If a Fund elects to retain its net capital gain, the Fund will be taxed thereon (except to the extent of any available capital loss carryovers) at the highest corporate tax rate (currently 35%). If a Fund elects to retain its net capital gain, it is expected that the Fund also will elect to have shareholders treated as if each received a distribution of its pro rata share of such gain, with the result that each shareholder will be required to report its pro rata share of such gain on its tax return as long-term capital gain, will receive a refundable tax credit for its pro rata share of tax paid by the Fund on the gain, and will increase the tax basis for its shares by an amount equal to the deemed distribution less the tax credit.

Each Fund intends to qualify each year to pay exempt-interest dividends by satisfying the requirement that at the close of each quarter of the Fund's taxable year at least 50% of the Fund's total assets consists of tax exempt obligations, which are exempt from federal income tax.

Distributions from each Fund will constitute exempt-interest dividends to the extent of the Fund's tax-exempt interest income (net of allocable expenses and amortized bond premium). Exempt-interest dividends distributed to shareholders of a Fund are excluded from gross income for federal income tax purposes. However, shareholders required to file a federal income tax return will be required to report the receipt of exempt-interest dividends on their returns. Moreover, while exempt-interest dividends are excluded from gross income for federal income tax purposes, they may be subject to alternative minimum tax ("AMT") in certain circumstances and may have other collateral tax consequences as discussed below.

Any gain or loss from the sale or other disposition of a tax-exempt security generally is treated as either long-term or short-term capital gain or loss, depending upon its holding period, and is fully taxable as described below relating to distributions of capital gains. However, gain recognized from the sale or other disposition of a tax-exempt security purchased after April 30, 1993, will be treated as ordinary income to the extent of the accrued market discount on such security.

AMT is imposed in addition to, but only to the extent it exceeds, the regular tax and is computed at a maximum rate of 28% for non-corporate taxpayers and 20% for corporate taxpayers on the excess of the taxpayer's alternative minimum taxable income ("AMTI") over an exemption amount. Exempt-interest dividends derived from certain "private activity" Tax Exempt Obligations issued after August 7, 1986, generally will constitute an item of tax preference includable in AMTI for both corporate and non-corporate taxpayers. However, tax-exempt interest on private activity bonds issued in 2009 and 2010 is not an item of tax preference for purposes of the AMT. In addition, exempt-interest dividends derived from all tax exempt obligations regardless of the date of issue, must be included in adjusted current earnings which are used in computing an additional corporate preference item includable in AMTI. Certain small corporations are wholly exempt from the AMT.

Exempt-interest dividends must be taken into account in computing the portion, if any, of social security or railroad retirement benefits that must be included in an individual shareholder's gross income subject to federal income tax. Further, a shareholder of a Fund is denied a deduction for interest on indebtedness incurred or continued to purchase or carry shares of the Fund. Moreover, a shareholder who is (or is related to) a "substantial user" of a facility financed by industrial development bonds held by the Fund will likely be subject to tax on dividends paid by the Fund which are derived from interest on such bonds. Receipt of exempt-interest dividends may result in other collateral federal income tax consequences to certain taxpayers, including financial institutions, property and casualty insurance companies and foreign corporations engaged in a trade or business in the United States.

To the extent that exempt-interest dividends are derived from interest on obligations of a state or its political subdivisions, or from interest on qualifying U.S. territorial obligations (including qualifying obligations of Puerto Rico, the U.S. Virgin Islands, and Guam), they also may be exempt from that state's personal income taxes. Most states, however, do not grant tax-free treatment to interest on state and municipal securities of other states.

Failure of the issuer of a tax-exempt security to comply with certain legal or contractual requirements relating to a tax exempt obligation could cause interest on the obligation, as well as Fund distributions derived from this interest, to become taxable, perhaps retroactively to the date the obligation was issued. In such a case, the Fund may be required to report to the IRS and send to shareholders amended Forms 1099 for a prior taxable year in order to report additional taxable income. This, in turn, could require shareholders to file amended federal and state income tax returns for such prior year to report and pay tax and interest on their pro rata share of the additional amount of taxable income.

Each Fund may invest a portion of its assets in securities that pay taxable interest. Each Fund also may distribute to you any market discount and net short-term capital gains from the sale of its portfolio securities. If you are a taxable investor, Fund distributions from this income are taxable to you as ordinary income to the extent of the Fund's earnings and profits. None of the dividends paid by the Fund will qualify for the dividends received deduction in the case of corporate shareholders or as qualified dividend income subject to reduced rates of taxation in the case of noncorporate shareholders.

Each Fund may derive capital gain and loss in connection with sales or other dispositions of its portfolio securities. Distributions derived from the excess of net short-term capital gain over net long-term capital loss will be taxable to you as ordinary income. Distributions paid from the excess of net long-term capital gain over net short-term capital loss will be taxable to you as long-term capital gain, regardless of how long you have held your shares in the Fund. Any net short-term or long-term capital gain realized by a Fund (net of any capital loss carryovers) generally will be distributed once each year and may be distributed more frequently, if necessary, in order to reduce or eliminate federal excise or income taxes on the Fund.

A Fund may have capital loss carryovers for a taxable year. Capital loss carryovers may be used to offset any current capital gain (whether short-term or long-term) and will not expire. All capital loss carryovers are listed in a Fund's financial statements. Any such losses may not be carried back. The amount of capital losses that can be carried forward and used in any single year is subject to an annual limitation if there is a more than 50% "change in ownership" of the Fund. An ownership change generally results when shareholders owning 5% or more of the Fund increase their aggregate holdings by more than 50% over a three-year look-back period. An ownership change could result in capital loss carryovers being used at a slower rate, thereby reducing the Fund's ability to offset capital gains with those losses. An increase in the amount of taxable gains distributed to the Fund's shareholders could result from an ownership change. The Fund undertakes no obligation to avoid or prevent an ownership change, which can occur in the normal course of shareholder purchases and redemptions or as a result of engaging in a tax-free reorganization with another fund. Moreover, because of circumstances beyond the Fund's control, there can be no assurance that the Fund will not experience, or has not already experienced, an ownership change. Additionally, if the Fund engages in a tax-free reorganization with another Fund, the effect of these and other rules not discussed herein may be to disallow or postpone the use by the Fund of its capital loss carryovers (including any current year losses and built-in losses when realized) to offset its own gains or those of the other Fund, or vice versa, thereby reducing the tax benefits Fund shareholders would otherwise have enjoyed from use of such capital loss carryovers.

Distributions by a Fund that are not paid from earnings and profits will be treated as a return of capital to the extent of (and in reduction of) the shareholder's tax basis in his or her shares; any excess will be treated as gain from the sale of his shares. Thus, the portion of a distribution that constitutes a return of capital will decrease the shareholder's tax basis in his or her Fund shares (but not below zero), and will result in an increase in the amount of gain (or decrease in the amount of loss) that will be recognized by the shareholder for tax purposes on the later sale of such Fund shares. Return of capital distributions can occur for a number of reasons including, among others, the Fund over-estimates the income to be received from certain investments.

Income earned on certain U.S. government obligations is exempt from state and local personal income taxes if earned directly by you. States also grant tax-free status to dividends paid to you from interest earned on direct obligations of the U.S. government, subject in some states to minimum investment or reporting requirements that must be met by the Fund. Income on investments by the Fund in certain other obligations, such as repurchase agreements collateralized by U.S.

government obligations, commercial paper and federal agency-backed obligations (e.g., Ginnie Mae or Fannie Mae obligations), generally does not qualify for tax-free treatment. The rules on exclusion of this income are different for corporations.

Each distribution by a Fund will be treated in the manner described above regardless of whether the distribution is paid in cash or reinvested in additional shares of the Fund (or of another fund). If the shareholder receives a distribution in the form of a reinvestment in additional shares, the shareholder will be treated as having received a distribution in an amount equal to the fair market value of the shares received, determined as of the reinvestment date.

When a shareholder purchases shares, the NAV of their shares may reflect undistributed net investment income, undistributed net capital gains or net unrealized appreciation in the value of the assets of the Fund. A distribution of that income or gain (including net gain, if any, from realizing all or part of that appreciation) will be taxable to a shareholder in the manner described above, although the distribution economically constitutes a partial return of capital to the shareholder unless the shareholder is investing through a tax-deferred arrangement, such as a 401(k) plan or an individual retirement account.

Ordinarily, a shareholder is required to take distributions by a Fund into income in the year in which they are made. A distribution declared in October, November or December of any year and payable to shareholders of record on a specified date in one of those months, however, is deemed to be paid by a Fund and received by them on December 31 of that year if the distribution is paid in January of the following year.

Each Fund will send information annually to its shareholders regarding the federal income tax status of distributions made (or deemed made) during the year.

An individual is required to pay a 3.8% federal tax on the lesser of (1) the individual's "net investment income," which generally includes dividends, interest and net gains from the disposition of investment property (including dividends and capital gain distributions the Fund pays and net gains realized on the redemption of Fund shares), or (2) the excess of the individual's "modified adjusted gross income" over a threshold amount ($250,000 for married persons filing jointly and $200,000 for single taxpayers). This tax is in addition to any other taxes due on that income. A similar tax applies to estates and trusts. Net investment income does not include exempt-interest dividends. This Medicare tax, if applicable, is reported by you on, and paid with, your federal income tax return. Shareholders should consult their tax advisors regarding the effect, if any, this provision may have on their investment in Fund shares.

Set forth below is a general description of the tax treatment of certain types of securities, investment techniques and transactions that may apply to a Fund and, in turn, affect the amount, character and timing of dividends and distributions payable by the Fund to its shareholders. In general, gain or loss recognized by a Fund on the sale or other disposition of portfolio investments will be a capital gain or loss. Such capital gain and loss may be long-term or short-term depending, in general, upon the length of time a particular investment position is maintained and, in some cases, upon the nature of the transaction. Property held for more than one year generally will be eligible for long-term capital gain or loss treatment. The application of certain rules described below may serve to alter the manner in which the holding period for a security is determined or may otherwise affect the characterization as long-term or short-term, and also the timing of the realization and/or character, of certain gains or losses.

Certain Fixed Income Investments. Gain recognized on the disposition of a debt obligation purchased by a Fund at a market discount (generally, at a price less than its principal amount) will be treated as ordinary income to the extent of the portion of the market discount which accrued during the period of time the Fund held the debt obligation unless the Fund made a current inclusion election to accrue market discount into income as it accrues. If a Fund purchases a debt obligation (such as a zero-coupon security or pay-in-kind security) that was originally issued at a discount, the Fund generally is required to include in gross income each year the portion of the original issue discount that accrues during such year. Therefore, a Fund's investment in such securities may cause the Fund to recognize income and make distributions to shareholders before it receives any cash payments on the securities. To generate cash to satisfy those distribution requirements, a Fund may have to sell portfolio securities that it otherwise might have continued to hold or to use cash flows from other sources such as the sale of Fund shares.

Investments in Debt Obligations that are at Risk of or in Default. Tax rules are not entirely clear about issues such as whether and to what extent a Fund should recognize market discount on a debt obligation, when a Fund may cease to

accrue interest, original issue discount or market discount, when and to what extent a Fund may take deductions for bad debts or worthless securities and how a Fund should allocate payments received on obligations in default between principal and income. These and other related issues will be addressed by a Fund in order to ensure that it distributes sufficient income to preserve its status as a RIC.

Investments in Securities of Uncertain Tax Character.  A Fund may invest in securities the U.S. federal income tax treatment of which may not be clear or may be subject to recharacterization by the IRS. To the extent the tax treatment of such securities or the income from such securities differs from the tax treatment expected by a Fund, it could affect the timing or character of income recognized by a Fund, requiring a Fund to purchase or sell securities, or otherwise change its portfolio, in order to comply with the tax rules applicable to RICs under the Code. Moreover, because the tax rules applicable to derivative financial instruments are in some cases uncertain under current law, an adverse determination or future guidance by the IRS with respect to these rules (which determination or guidance could be retroactive) may affect whether a Fund has made sufficient distributions, and otherwise satisfied the relevant requirements, to maintain its qualification as a regulated investment company and avoid a fund-level tax.

A 4% non-deductible federal excise tax ("Excise Tax") is imposed on a RIC that fails to distribute in each calendar year an amount equal to at least the sum of (1) 98.0% of its ordinary income for the year plus (2) 98.2% of its capital gain net income for the one-year period ended on October 31 of the year, and (3) any prior year undistributed ordinary income and capital gain net income. A Fund will be treated as having distributed any amount on which it is subject to income tax for any taxable year ending in the calendar year.

For purposes of calculating the Excise Tax, the Fund (1) reduces its capital gain net income (but not below its net capital gain) by the amount of any net ordinary loss for the calendar year and (2) excludes any "specified gain" or "specified loss" (see, "Deferral of Late Year Losses" above for the definition of "specified gain" and "specified loss") realized or sustained after October 31 of any year in determining the amount of ordinary income for the current calendar year. A Fund will include any "specified gain" or "specified loss" incurred after October 31 in determining ordinary income for the succeeding calendar year.

Generally, each Fund intends to make sufficient distributions prior to the end of each calendar year to avoid any material liability for federal income and Excise Tax, but can give no assurances that all or a portion of such liability will be avoided. In addition, under certain circumstances, temporary timing or permanent differences in the realization of income and expense for book and tax purposes can result in the Fund having to pay an Excise Tax. Shareholders should note, however, that each Fund may in certain circumstances be required to liquidate portfolio investments to make sufficient distributions to avoid Excise Tax liability.

In general, you will recognize gain or loss on an exchange or redemption of Fund shares in an amount equal to the difference between the proceeds of the exchange or redemption and your adjusted tax basis in the shares. All or a portion of any loss so recognized may be disallowed if you purchase Fund shares (for example, by reinvesting dividends) within 30 days before or after the exchange or redemption (i.e., a wash sale). If disallowed, the loss would be reflected in an upward adjustment to the basis in the purchased shares. In general, any gain or loss arising from an exchange or redemption of shares of the Fund will be considered a capital gain or loss and will be long-term capital gain or loss if the shares were held for longer than one year. Any capital loss arising from an exchange or redemption of shares held for six months or less, however, will be treated as a long-term capital loss to the extent of the amount of distributions of net capital gain, if any, received on such shares. In determining the holding period of shares for this purpose, any period during which your risk of loss is offset by means of options, short sales or similar transactions is not counted. Capital losses in any year are deductible only to the extent of capital gains plus, in the case of a non-corporate taxpayer, $3,000 of ordinary income.

Tax Basis Information. The Fund is required to report to you and the IRS annually on Form 1099-B the cost basis of shares purchased or acquired where the cost basis of the shares is known by the Fund (referred to as "covered shares") and which are disposed of after they are purchased or acquired. However, cost basis reporting is not required for certain shareholders, including shareholders investing in the Fund through a tax-advantaged retirement account, such as a 401(k) plan or an individual retirement account.

When required to report cost basis, the Fund will calculate it using the Fund's default method, unless you instruct the Fund to use a different calculation method. For additional information regarding the Fund's available cost basis reporting methods, including its default method, please contact the Fund. If you hold your Fund shares through a broker (or other nominee), please contact that broker (nominee) with respect to reporting of cost basis and available elections for your account.

The IRS permits the use of several methods to determine the cost basis of mutual fund shares. The method used will determine which specific shares are deemed to be sold when there are multiple purchases on different dates at differing share prices, and the entire position is not sold at one time. The Fund does not recommend any particular method of determining cost basis, and the use of other methods may result in more favorable tax consequences for some shareholders. It is important that you consult with your tax advisor to determine which method is best for you and then notify the Fund if you intend to utilize a method other than the Fund's default method for covered shares. If you do not notify the Fund of your elected cost basis method upon initial purchase into your account, the default method will be applied to your covered shares.

The Fund will compute and report the cost basis of your Fund shares sold or exchanged by taking into account all of the applicable adjustments to cost basis and holding periods as required by the Code and Treasury regulations for purposes of reporting these amounts to you and the IRS. However the Fund is not required to, and in many cases the Fund does not possess the information to, take all possible basis, holding period or other adjustments into account in reporting cost basis information to you. Therefore, shareholders should carefully review the cost basis information provided by the Fund.

Reportable Transactions . Under Treasury regulations, if a shareholder recognizes a loss with respect to the Fund's shares of $2 million or more for an individual shareholder or $10 million or more for a corporate shareholder (or certain greater amounts over a combination of years), the shareholder must file with the IRS a disclosure statement on Form 8886. The fact that a loss is reportable under these regulations does not affect the legal determination of whether the taxpayer's treatment of the loss is proper. Shareholders should consult their tax advisers to determine the applicability of these regulations in light of their individual circumstances.

F. Backup Withholding

By law, each Fund may be required to withhold a portion of your taxable dividends and sales proceeds unless you:

Each Fund also must withhold if the IRS instructs it to do so. When withholding is required, the amount will be 28% of any distributions or proceeds paid. Backup withholding is not an additional tax. Any amounts withheld may be credited against the shareholder's U.S. federal income tax liability, provided the appropriate information is furnished to the IRS. Certain payees and payments are exempt from backup withholding and information reporting.

Fund shares are generally not sold outside the United States. Non-U.S. investors should be aware that U.S. withholding at a 30% or lower treaty tax rate, special tax certification requirements to avoid U.S. backup withholding and claim any treaty benefits, and U.S. estate taxes, may apply to any investment in a Fund.

General Information. Each Fund is a separate series of the Trust. The Trust is an open-end investment management company organized under Delaware law as a statutory trust on July 30, 2012. The Trust's trust instrument (the "Trust Instrument") permits the Trust to offer separate series ("funds") of shares of beneficial interest ("shares"). The Trust reserves the right to create and issue shares of additional funds. The Trust and each fund will continue indefinitely until terminated. Each fund is a separate mutual fund, and each share of each fund represents an equal proportionate interest in that fund. All consideration received by the Trust for shares of any fund and all assets of such fund belong solely to that fund and would be subject to liabilities related thereto. The other funds of the Trust are described in one or more separate Statements of Additional Information.

Shareholder Voting and Other Rights. Each share of a fund and each class of shares has equal dividend, distribution, liquidation and voting rights. Fractional shares have those rights proportionately, except that expenses related to the distribution of shares of each fund or class (and certain other expenses such as transfer agency, shareholder service and administration expenses) are borne solely by those shares. Each fund or class votes separately with respect to the provisions of any Rule 12b-1 plan which pertains to the fund or class and other matters for which separate fund or class voting is appropriate under applicable law. Generally, shares will be voted separately by each fund except if: (1) the 1940 Act requires shares to be voted in the aggregate and not by individual funds; or (2) the Board determines that the matter affects more than one fund and all affected funds must vote. The Board may also determine that a matter only affects certain funds or classes of the Trust and thus that only those funds or classes are entitled to vote on the matter. Delaware law does not require the Trust to hold annual meetings of shareholders, and it is anticipated that shareholder meetings will be held only when specifically required by federal or state law. There are no conversion or preemptive rights in connection with shares of the Trust.

All shares, when issued in accordance with the terms of the offering, will be fully paid and non-assessable.

A shareholder in a fund is entitled to the shareholder's pro rata share of all distributions arising from that fund's assets and, upon redeeming shares, will receive the portion of the fund's net assets represented by the redeemed shares.

Shareholders representing 10% or more of the Trust's (or a fund's) shares may, as set forth in the Trust Instrument, call meetings of the Trust (or fund) for any purpose related to the Trust (or fund), including, in the case of a meeting of the Trust, the purpose of voting on removal of one or more trustees.

Termination or Reorganization of Trust or its Series. The Board, may, without prior shareholder approval, change the form of organization of the Trust by merger, consolidation or incorporation, so long as the surviving entity is an open-end management investment company. Under the Trust Instrument, the trustees may also, without shareholder vote, sell and convey all or substantially all of the assets of the Trust to another trust, partnership, association or corporation, or cause the Trust to incorporate in the State of Delaware, so long as the surviving entity is an open-end management investment company that will succeed to or assume the Trust's registration statement.

Under the Trust Instrument, the Board may sell or convey the assets of a fund or reorganize such fund into another investment company registered under the 1940 Act without a shareholder vote.

A principal shareholder is any person who owns of record or beneficially 5% or more of the outstanding shares of a Fund. A control person is a shareholder who owns beneficially or through controlled companies more than 25% of the voting securities of a company or acknowledges the existence of control. Shareholders owning voting securities in excess of 25% may determine the outcome of any matter affecting and voted on by shareholders of the Fund.

As of the date of this SAI, the Funds are newly organized and have not yet commenced operations.

Delaware law provides that Fund shareholders are entitled to the same limitations of personal liability extended to stockholders of private corporations for profit. In addition, the Trust Instrument contains an express disclaimer of shareholder liability for the debts, liabilities, obligations and expenses of the Trust. The Trust Instrument provides that if

any shareholder or former shareholder of any fund is held personally liable, solely by reason of having been a shareholder (and not because of their acts or omissions or for some other reason), the shareholder or former shareholder shall be entitled out of assets belonging to the applicable fund to be held harmless from and indemnified against all losses and expenses arising from such liability. The Trust Instrument also provides that the Trust, on behalf of a fund, shall, upon request by a shareholder or former shareholder, assume the defense of any claim made against any shareholder for any act or obligation of that fund and satisfy any judgment thereon from the assets belonging to the fund. Thus, the risk of a shareholder incurring financial loss on account of shareholder liability is limited to circumstances in which Delaware law does not apply, no contractual limitation of liability is in effect, and a Fund is unable to meet its obligations.

No trustee or officer of the Trust is responsible or liable to the Trust, its shareholders or another trustee or other person that is a party to or is otherwise bound by the Trust's Trust Instrument for any act or omission, breach of contract, breach of duties or for neglect or wrongdoing of the Trustee or officer or any officer, agent, representative, employee, adviser, principal underwriter or independent contractor to the Trust. However, no trustee or officer is protected under the Trust Instrument against liability to the Trust or its shareholders to which such trustee or officer would otherwise be subject by reason of willful misfeasance, bad faith, gross negligence or reckless disregard of their duties.

All persons contracting with or having a claim against the Trust or a particular fund may only look to the Trust assets (or assets belonging to a fund) for payment under such contract or claim. Neither the trustees nor any of the Trust's officers or employees (whether past, present or future) are personally liable for such claims.

A copy of the Trust's and the Adviser's proxy voting procedures are included in Appendices B and C, respectively.

Information regarding how each Fund voted proxies relating to portfolio securities during the 12-month period ended June 30 will be available: (1) without charge, upon request, by contacting the Transfer Agent at (844) 342-5763 (toll free); and (2) on the SEC's website at www.sec.gov.

APPENDIX A - DESCRIPTION OF SECURITIES RATINGS

Standard & Poor's ("S&P") Municipal Long-Term Bond Ratings:

The following descriptions of S&P's long-term corporate and municipal bond ratings have been published by Standard & Poor's Financial Service LLC.

AAA - An obligation rated 'AAA' has the highest rating assigned by S&P. The obligor's capacity to meet its financial commitment on the obligation is extremely strong.

AA - An obligation rated 'AA' differs from the highest-rated obligations only to a small degree. The obligor's capacity to meet its financial commitment on the obligation is very strong.

A - An obligation rated 'A' is somewhat more susceptible to the adverse effects of changes in circumstances and economic conditions than obligations in higher-rated categories. However, the obligor's capacity to meet its financial commitment on the obligation is still strong.

BBB - An obligation rated 'BBB' exhibits adequate protection parameters. However, adverse economic conditions or changing circumstances are more likely to lead to a weakened capacity of the obligor to meet its financial commitment on the obligation.

BB, B, CCC, CC, and C - Obligations rated 'BB', 'B', 'CCC', 'CC', and 'C' are regarded as having significant speculative characteristics. 'BB' indicates the least degree of speculation and 'C' the highest. While such obligations will likely have some quality and protective characteristics, these may be outweighed by large uncertainties or major exposures to adverse conditions.

BB - An obligation rated 'BB' is less vulnerable to nonpayment than other speculative issues. However, it faces major ongoing uncertainties or exposure to adverse business, financial, or economic conditions which could lead to the obligor's inadequate capacity to meet its financial commitment on the obligation.

B - An obligation rated 'B' is more vulnerable to nonpayment than obligations rated 'BB', but the obligor currently has the capacity to meet its financial commitment on the obligation. Adverse business, financial, or economic conditions will likely impair the obligor's capacity or willingness to meet its financial commitment on the obligation.

CCC - An obligation rated 'CCC' is currently vulnerable to nonpayment, and is dependent upon favorable business, financial, and economic conditions for the obligor to meet its financial commitment on the obligation. In the event of adverse business, financial, or economic conditions, the obligor is not likely to have the capacity to meet its financial commitment on the obligation.

CC - An obligation rated 'CC' is currently highly vulnerable to nonpayment. The 'CC' rating is used when a default has not yet occurred, but Standard & Poor's expects default to be a virtual certainty, regardless of the anticipated time to default.

C - An obligation rated 'C' is currently highly vulnerable to nonpayment, and the obligation is expected to have lower relative seniority or lower ultimate recovery compared to obligations that are rated higher.

D - An obligation rated 'D' is in default or in breach of an imputed promise. For non-hybrid capital instruments, the 'D' rating category is used when payments on an obligation are not made on the date due, unless Standard & Poor's believes that such payments will be made within five business days in the absence of a stated grace period or within the earlier of the stated grace period or 30 calendar days. The 'D' rating also will be used upon the filing of a bankruptcy petition or the taking of similar action and where default on an obligation is a virtual certainty, for example due to automatic stay provisions. An obligation's rating is lowered to 'D' if it is subject to a distressed exchange offer.

Plus (+) or Minus (-) - The ratings from 'AA' to 'CCC' may be modified by the addition of a plus (+) or minus (-) sign to show relative standing within the major rating categories.

NR - This indicates that no rating has been requested, that there is insufficient information on which to base a rating, or that Standard & Poor's does not rate a particular obligation as a matter of policy.

Moody's U.S. Municipal Long-Term Bond Ratings:

The following descriptions of Moody's long-term municipal bond ratings have been published by Moody's Investors Service, Inc. and Moody's Analytics Inc.

Aaa - Issuers or issues rated Aaa demonstrate the strongest creditworthiness relative to other U.S. municipal or tax-exempt issuers or issues.

Aa - Issuers or issues rated Aa demonstrate very strong creditworthiness relative to other U.S. municipal or tax-exempt issuers or issues.

A - Issuers or issues rated A present above-average creditworthiness relative to other U.S. municipal or tax-exempt issuers or issues.

Baa - Issuers or issues rated Baa represent average creditworthiness relative to other U.S. municipal or tax- exempt issuers or issues.

Ba - Issuers or issues rated Ba demonstrate below-average creditworthiness relative to other U.S. municipal or tax-exempt issuers or issues.

B - Issuers or issues rated B demonstrate weak creditworthiness relative to other U.S. municipal or tax- exempt issuers or issues.

Caa - Issuers or issues rated Caa demonstrate very weak creditworthiness relative to other U.S. municipal or tax-exempt issuers or issues.

Ca - Issuers or issues rated Ca demonstrate extremely weak creditworthiness relative to other U.S. municipal or tax-exempt issuers or issues.

C - Issuers or issues rated C demonstrate the weakest creditworthiness relative to other U.S. municipal or tax-exempt issuers or issues.

Modifiers: Moody's appends numerical modifiers 1, 2, and 3 to each generic rating category from Aa through Caa. The modifier 1 indicates that the issuer or obligation ranks in the higher end of its generic rating category; the modifier 2 indicates a mid-range ranking; and the modifier 3 indicates a ranking in the lower end of that generic rating category.

Fitch's Municipal Bond Long-Term Ratings:

The following descriptions of Fitch's long-term municipal bond ratings have been published by Fitch, Inc. and Fitch Ratings Ltd.

AAA - Highest credit quality. ' AAA ' ratings denote the lowest expectation of default risk. They are assigned only in cases of exceptionally strong capacity for payment of financial commitments. This capacity is highly unlikely to be adversely affected by foreseeable events.

AA - Very high credit quality. ' AA ' ratings denote expectations of very low default risk. They indicate very strong capacity for payment of financial commitments. This capacity is not significantly vulnerable to foreseeable events.

A - High credit quality. ' A ' ratings denote expectations of low default risk. The capacity for payment of financial commitments is considered strong. This capacity may, nevertheless, be more vulnerable to adverse business or economic conditions than is the case for higher ratings.

BBB - Good credit quality. ' BBB ' ratings indicate that expectations of credit risk are currently low. The capacity for payment of financial commitments is considered adequate but adverse business or economic conditions are more likely to impair this capacity.

BB - Speculative. ' BB ' ratings indicate an elevated vulnerability to default risk, particularly in the event of adverse changes in business or economic conditions over time.

B - Highly speculative. ' B ' ratings indicate that material default risk is present, but a limited margin of safety remains. Financial commitments are currently being met; however, capacity for continued payment is vulnerable to deterioration in the business and economic environment.

CCC - Substantial credit risk. ' CCC ' ratings indicate that default is a real possibility.

CC - Very high levels of credit risk. ' CC ' ratings indicate default of some kind appears probable.

C - Exceptionally high levels of credit risk. ' C ' ratings indicate default appears imminent or inevitable.

D - Default. ' D ' ratings indicate a default. Default generally is defined as one of the following:

Structured Finance Defaults - "Imminent" default, categorized under 'C', typically refers to the occasion where a payment default has been intimated by the issuer, and is all but inevitable. This may, for example, be where an issuer has missed a scheduled payment, but (as is typical) has a grace period during which it may cure the payment default. Another alternative would be where an issuer has formally announced a distressed debt exchange, but the date of the exchange still lies several days or weeks in the immediate future.

Additionally, in structured finance transactions, where analysis indicates that an instrument is irrevocably impaired such that it is not expected to pay interest and/or principal in full in accordance with the terms of the obligation's documentation during the life of the transaction, but where no payment default in accordance with the terms of the documentation is imminent, the obligation will typically be rated in the 'C' category.

Structured Finance Writedowns - Where an instrument has experienced an involuntary and, in the agency's opinion, irreversible "writedown" of principal (i.e. other than through amortization, and resulting in a loss to the investor), a credit rating of 'D' will be assigned to the instrument. Where the agency believes the "writedown" may prove to be temporary (and the loss may be "written up" again in future if and when performance improves), then a credit rating of 'C' will typically be assigned. Should the "writedown" then later be reversed, the credit rating will be raised to an appropriate level for that instrument. Should the "writedown" later be deemed as irreversible, the credit rating will be lowered to 'D'.

Notes: In the case of structured and project finance, while the ratings do not address the loss severity given default of the rated liability, loss severity assumptions on the underlying assets are nonetheless typically included as part of the analysis. Loss severity assumptions are used to derive pool cash flows available to service the rated liability.

Plus (+) or Minus (-) - The modifiers "+" or "-"may be appended to a rating to denote relative status within major rating categories. Such suffixes are not added to the 'AAA' Long-Term Rating category, or to Long-Term Rating categories below 'B'.

S&P's Municipal Short-Term Bond Ratings:

The following descriptions of S&P's short-term municipal ratings have been published by Standard & Poor's Financial Service LLC.

SP-1 - Strong capacity to pay principal and interest. An issue determined to possess a very strong capacity to pay debt service is given a plus (+) designation.

SP-2 - Satisfactory capacity to pay principal and interest, with some vulnerability to adverse financial and economic changes over the term of the notes.

SP-3 - Speculative capacity to pay principal and interest.

Moody's Municipal Short-Term Ratings:

The following descriptions of Moody's short-term municipal ratings have been published by Moody's Investors Service, Inc. and Moody's Analytics Inc.

MIG 1 - This designation denotes superior credit quality. Excellent protection is afforded by established cash flows, highly reliable liquidity support, or demonstrated broad-based access to the market for refinancing.

MIG 2 - This designation denotes strong credit quality. Margins of protection are ample, although not as large as in the preceding group.

MIG 3 - This designation denotes acceptable credit quality. Liquidity and cash-flow protection may be narrow, and market access for refinancing is likely to be less well-established.

SG - This designation denotes speculative-grade credit quality. Debt instruments in this category may lack sufficient margins of protection.

Fitch's Municipal Short-Term Credit Ratings:

The following descriptions of Fitch's municipal short-term credit ratings have been published by Fitch, Inc. and Fitch Ratings Ltd.

F1 - Highest short-term credit quality. Indicates the strongest intrinsic capacity for timely payment of financial commitments; may have an added "+" to denote any exceptionally strong credit feature.

F2 - Good short-term credit quality. Good intrinsic capacity for timely payment of financial commitments.

F3 - Fair short-term credit quality. The intrinsic capacity for timely payment of financial commitments is adequate.

B - Speculative short-term credit quality. Minimal capacity for timely payment of financial commitments, plus heightened vulnerability to near term adverse changes in financial and economic conditions.

C - High short-term default risk. Default is a real possibility.

RD - Restricted default. Indicates an entity that has defaulted on one or more of its financial commitments, although it continues to meet other financial obligations. Applicable to entity ratings only.

D - Default. Indicates a broad-based default event for an entity, or the default of a specific short-term obligation.

S&P's Short-Term Credit Ratings:

The following descriptions of S&P's short-term credit ratings have been published by Standard & Poor's Financial Service LLC.

A-1 - A short-term obligation rated 'A-1' is rated in the highest category by Standard & Poor's. The obligor's capacity to meet its financial commitment on the obligation is strong. Within this category, certain obligations are designated with a plus sign (+). This indicates that the obligor's capacity to meet its financial commitment on these obligations is extremely strong.

A-2 - A short-term obligation rated 'A-2' is somewhat more susceptible to the adverse effects of changes in circumstances and economic conditions than obligations in higher rating categories. However, the obligor's capacity to meet its financial commitment on the obligation is satisfactory.

A-3 - A short-term obligation rated 'A-3' exhibits adequate protection parameters. However, adverse economic conditions or changing circumstances are more likely to lead to a weakened capacity of the obligor to meet its financial commitment on the obligation.

B - A short-term obligation rated 'B' is regarded as vulnerable and has significant speculative characteristics. The obligor currently has the capacity to meet its financial commitments; however, it faces major ongoing uncertainties which could lead to the obligor's inadequate capacity to meet its financial commitments.

C - A short-term obligation rated 'C' is currently vulnerable to nonpayment and is dependent upon favorable business, financial, and economic conditions for the obligor to meet its financial commitment on the obligation.

D - A short-term obligation rated 'D' is in default or in breach of an imputed promise. For non-hybrid capital instruments, the 'D' rating category is used when payments on an obligation are not made on the date due, unless Standard & Poor's believes that such payments will be made within any stated grace period. However, any stated grace period longer than five business days will be treated as five business days. The 'D' rating also will be used upon the filing of a bankruptcy petition or the taking of a similar action and where default on an obligation is a virtual certainty, for example due to automatic stay provisions. An obligation's rating is lowered to 'D' if it is subject to a distressed exchange offer.

Dual Ratings - S&P assigns "dual" ratings to all debt issues that have a put option or demand feature. The first component of the rating addresses the likelihood of repayment of principal and interest as due, and the second component of the rating addresses only the demand feature. The first component of the rating can relate to either a short-term or long-term transaction and accordingly use either short-term or long-term rating symbols. The second component of the rating relates to the put option and is assigned a short-term rating symbol (for example, 'AAA/A-1+' or 'A-1+/A-1'). With U.S. municipal short-term demand debt, the U.S. municipal short-term note rating symbols are used for the first component of the rating (for example, 'SP-1+/A-1+').

Moody's Short-Term Ratings:

The following descriptions of Moody's short-term credit ratings have been published by Moody's Investors Service, Inc. and Moody's Analytics Inc.

P-1 - Issuers (or supporting institutions) rated Prime-1 have a superior ability to repay short-term debt obligations.

P-2 - Issuers (or supporting institutions) rated Prime-2 have a strong ability to repay short-term debt obligations.

P-3 - Issuers (or supporting institutions) rated Prime-3 have an acceptable ability to repay short-term obligations.

NP - Issuers (or supporting institutions) rated Not Prime do not fall within any of the Prime rating categories.

Note: Canadian issuers rated P-1 or P-2 have their short-term ratings enhanced by the senior-most long-term rating of the issuer, its guarantor or support-provider.

Fitch's Short-Term Ratings:

The following descriptions of Fitch's short-term credit ratings have been published by Fitch, Inc. and Fitch Ratings Ltd.

F1 - Highest short-term credit quality. Indicates the strongest intrinsic capacity for timely payment of financial commitments; may have an added "+" to denote any exceptionally strong credit feature.

F2 - Good short-term credit quality. Good intrinsic capacity for timely payment of financial commitments.

F3 - Fair short-term credit quality. The intrinsic capacity for timely payment of financial commitments is adequate.

B - Speculative short-term credit quality. Minimal capacity for timely payment of financial commitments, plus heightened vulnerability to near term adverse changes in financial and economic conditions.

C - High short-term default risk. Default is a real possibility.

RD - Restricted default. Indicates an entity that has defaulted on one or more of its financial commitments, although it continues to meet other financial obligations. Applicable to entity ratings only.

D - Default. Indicates a broad-based default event for an entity, or the default of a specific short-term obligation.

The modifiers "+" or "-" may be appended to a rating to denote relative status within major rating categories. Such suffixes are not added to the 'AAA' Long-term rating category, to categories below 'CCC', or to Short-term ratings other than 'F1'. (The +/- modifiers are only used to denote issues within the CCC category, whereas issuers are only rated CCC without the use of modifiers.)

APPENDIX B - TRUST PROXY VOTING PROCEDURES

Forum Funds II
Shareholder Voting Policy

As of June 13, 2013

The Trust exercises its shareholder voting responsibilities as an investor in other issuers as a fiduciary, with the goal of maximizing the value of the Trust's and its shareholders' investments. This Policy details the Trust's policy with respect to shareholder voting.

(A) Delegation by Board . Each Fund has delegated to the Adviser the authority to vote as a shareholder of issuers whose securities are held in its portfolio. The Adviser shall maintain and the Board shall approve voting procedures related to the Adviser acting on behalf of the Fund in accordance with its fiduciary duties and the best interests of Fund shareholders.

(B) Delivery of Proxies . The Adviser is responsible for coordinating the delivery of proxies to be voted by the Custodian to the Adviser or to an agent of the Adviser selected by the Adviser to vote proxies with respect to which the Adviser has such discretion (a "Proxy Voting Service"). Upon request, the Adviser shall provide periodic reports to the Board as to the implementation and operation of its shareholder voting policies and procedures as they relate to the Trust.

(C) Conflicts of Interest . The Trust recognizes that under certain circumstances an Adviser or Proxy Voting Service may have a conflict of interest in voting on behalf of a Fund. A conflict of interest includes any circumstance when the Fund, the Adviser, the Distributor, the Proxy Voting Service or one or more of their Affiliated Persons (including officers, directors and employees) knowingly does business with, receives compensation from, or sits on the board of, a particular issuer or closely affiliated entity, and, therefore, may appear to have a conflict of interest between its own interests and the interests of Fund shareholders in how shares of that issuer are voted.

Each Adviser is responsible for maintaining procedures to identify and address material conflicts of interest and, when applicable, determine the adequacy of a Proxy Voting Service's procedures to identify and address material conflicts of interest.

(D) Voting Record . The Adviser shall be responsible for ensuring a voting record is maintained that includes all instances where the Fund was entitled to vote and will coordinate the annual delivery of such record to the Administrator for purposes of preparing the Trust's annual Form N-PX filing. The voting record shall include the following information required to be reported in Form N-PX:

(1) The name of the issuer of the security;

(2) The exchange ticker symbol of the security;

(3) The CUSIP for the security;

(4) The shareholder meeting date;

(5) A brief identification of the matter voted on;

(6) Whether the matter was proposed by the issuer or by a security holder;

(7) Whether the Trust cast its vote on the matter;

(8) How the Trust cast its vote (e.g., for or against proposal, or abstain; for or withhold regarding election of directors); and

(9) Whether the Trust cast its vote for or against management.

The Adviser shall also be responsible for ensuring information regarding how the Fund voted relating to portfolio securities during the twelve-month period ended June 30 is available on the Fund's website or other location consistent with disclosure in the Fund's registration statement.

The Trust and an Adviser may abstain from shareholder voting in certain circumstances. Abstaining from voting may be appropriate if voting would be unduly burdensome or expensive, or otherwise not in the best interest of a Fund's shareholders.

(A) The Adviser shall submit its voting procedures to the Board for review and approval initially and at the next regularly scheduled meeting of the Board following any material change.

(B) The Adviser shall report to the Board, at least quarterly, whether any conflicts of interest arose while voting as an investor in other issuers and how such conflicts were handled.

APPENDIX C - ADVISER PROXY VOTING PROCEDURES

GFI, as a matter of policy and practice, has no authority to vote proxies on behalf of advisory clients. GFI may offer assistance as to proxy matters upon a client's request, but the client always retains the proxy voting responsibility. GFI's policy of having no proxy voting responsibility is disclosed to clients. Notwithstanding the above, GFI maintains ability to vote the proxy for Gurtin California Municipal Value Fund and Gurtin National Municipal Value Fund shareholders only if requested, in writing, by either of the respective funds' board of directors. In these circumstances only, the CIO, on behalf of GFI, after consultation with the Managing Partners, solely in their capacity as investment adviser to the funds, is empowered to vote the proxy using his/her best judgment in the interest of the mutual funds unless in a situation where a conflict of interest arises then the CIO will abstain from voting a proxy related to that conflict of interest.

Proxy voting is an important right of shareholders and reasonable care and diligence must be undertaken to ensure that such rights are properly and timely exercised.

Investment advisers registered with the SEC, and which exercise voting authority with respect to client securities, are required by Rule 206(4)-6 of the Advisers Act to (a) adopt and implement written policies and procedures that are reasonably designed to ensure that client securities are voted in the best interests of clients, which must include how an adviser addresses material conflicts that may arise between an adviser's interests and those of its clients; (b) to disclose to clients how they may obtain information from the adviser with respect to the voting of proxies for their securities; (c) to describe to clients a summary of its proxy voting policies and procedures and, upon request, furnish a copy to its clients; and (d) maintain certain records relating to the adviser's proxy voting activities when the adviser does have proxy voting authority.

The Chief Compliance Officer has the responsibility for the implementation and monitoring of GFI's proxy policy, practices, disclosures and record keeping, and to ensure that GFI does not accept or exercise any proxy voting authority on behalf of clients, other than what is stated above, without an appropriate review and change of GFI's policy with appropriate regulatory requirements being met and records maintained.

GFI has adopted various procedures to implement GFI's policy and reviews to monitor and insure GFI's policy is observed, implemented properly and amended or updated, as appropriate, which are the following:

If the mutual funds shareholders request information regarding proxy votes or policies and procedures, any such request received by any employee should be forwarded to the Chief Compliance Officer who will prepare a written response with the information requested and as applicable will include the name of issuer, the proposal voted upon, and how GFI voted the client's proxy with respect to each proposal about which client inquired.

Although GFI's general policy is not to accept proxy voting responsibility from its clients except as stated above for specified mutual funds, GFI provides conspicuously displayed information in its ADV Part 2A summarizing the proxy voting policy and procedures, including a statement that clients and the mutual funds shareholders may request information regarding how GFI voted a client's proxies, and that clients may request a copy of these policies and procedures.